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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Sample Questions:

1. The probability of default of a security over a 1 year period is 3%. What is the probability that it would not have defaulted at the end of four years from now?

A) 11.47%
B) 88.00%
C) 12.00%
D) 88.53%

2. For identical mean and variance, which of the following distribution assumptions will provide a higher estimate of VaR at a high level of confidence?

A) A distribution with kurtosis = 8
B) A distribution with kurtosis = 3
C) A distribution with kurtosis = 2
D) A distribution with kurtosis = 0

3. Which of the following formulae describes Marginal VaR for a portfolio p, where V_i is the value of the i-th asset in the portfolio? (All other notation and symbols have their usual meaning.) A)

B)

C)

D)
All of the above

A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option D
D) Option C

4. The definition of operational risk per Basel II includes which of the following:
I. Risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events II. Legal risk III. Strategic risk IV. Reputational risk

A) II and III
B) I and III
C) I, II, III and IV
D) I and II

5. Which of the following best describes the concept of marginal VaR of an asset in a portfolio:

A) Marginal VaR is the value of the expected losses on occasions where the VaR estimate is exceeded.
B) Marginal VaR is the contribution of the asset to portfolio VaR in a way that the sum of such calculations for all the assets in the portfolio adds up to the portfolio VaR.
C) Marginal VaR is the change in the VaR estimate for the portfolio as a result of including the asset in the portfolio.
D) Marginal VaR describes the change in total VaR resulting from a $1 change in the value of the asset in question.

Solutions: