Verified & Latest ASIS-CPP Dump Q&As with Correct Answers [Q217-Q242]

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Verified & Latest ASIS-CPP Dump Q&As with Correct Answers

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NEW QUESTION # 217
Which of the following substances would be classified as a depressant under the Controlled Substance Act?

  • A. Miltown
  • B. Preludin
  • C. All of the above
  • D. Dilaudid
  • E. Pethadol
  • F. Darvon

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 218
Fires involving live electrical equipment such as transformers would be classified as:

  • A. Class A
  • B. Class C
  • C. Class D
  • D. Class E
  • E. Class B

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 219
Flood forecasts and warnings are issued by the:

  • A. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
  • B. Agriculture Department
  • C. National Weather Service
  • D. Federal Emergency Management Agency
  • E. Department of the Interior

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 220
Which of the following methods has not been used in recent year to crack open record and money safes?

  • A. Core drilling
  • B. Torching
  • C. Punching
  • D. Using a laser beam
  • E. Using a fluoroscope

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 221
Which of the following is prohibited by the Department of Defense regulations regarding the method of transmitting top secret information outside a facility?

  • A. Specifically designated escort
  • B. Electronic means in a crypto system
  • C. Armed Forces Courier Service
  • D. Designated courier that has been cleared
  • E. U.S. Postal Service

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 222
According to a 1989 Department of Labor study, the percentage of employees in America working for a
company that has a drug-testing program for employees or plans to have a drug-testing program is:

  • A. 80 percent
  • B. 1 percent
  • C. 50 percent
  • D. 10 percent

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 223
The use of a simple codeword or phrase during a normal conversation to alert other security personnel
that an authorized person has been forced to vouch for an unauthorized individual is termed:

  • A. Basic alert
  • B. SOS
  • C. Code one
  • D. Security alert
  • E. Duress code

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 224
Crimes that do not require any mens rea (guilty intent) or negligence are commonly described as:

  • A. Common-law crimes
  • B. None of the above
  • C. Statutory crimes
  • D. True crimes
  • E. Strict liability crimes

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 225
When managing an investigative unit, the best way to obtain favorable support for budget requests is to:

  • A. provide estimates of overall investigative costs.
  • B. cut education and training expenses for the unit
  • C. demonstrate restitution and recovery benefits.
  • D. utilize investigators in roles outside of the unit.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When managing an investigative unit, securing budget support often hinges on demonstrating the tangible benefits and value the unit brings to the organization. Demonstrating restitution and recovery benefits shows a direct return on investment (ROI), which is a critical factor in budget approval processes.
* Justification of Budget Requests:
* Highlighting restitution benefits (e.g., recovered funds, reduced fraud losses) presents measurable financial impacts.
* Demonstrating recovery benefits (e.g., recovered stolen assets) aligns with the organization's financial goals and justifies resource allocation.
* Evaluation of Other Options:
* A. Cut education and training expenses: This could undermine the unit's effectiveness and long-term performance. Cutting training is often counterproductive.
* B. Provide estimates of overall investigative costs: While cost estimates are essential, they do not emphasize value and ROI as effectively as showing restitution and recovery.
* C. Utilize investigators in roles outside of the unit: Misallocating resources away from investigative duties can dilute focus and reduce the unit's performance.
* Best Practices for Investigative Unit Budget Management:
* Emphasize tangible benefits: Provide case studies or metrics showcasing how the unit has saved or recovered resources.
* Link to organizational objectives: Align investigative activities with corporate goals, such as loss prevention and compliance.
ASIS CPP References:
* Domain 1 (Security Principles and Practices): Effective budget management and resource allocation.
* Domain 4 (Investigations): Aligning investigative functions with organizational objectives to secure funding and support.


NEW QUESTION # 226
Watery eyes, runny, nose, yawning, loss of appetite, irritability, tremors, panic, chills and sweating,
cramps, and nausea would indicate withdrawal symptoms of:

  • A. Stimulants
  • B. Cocaine
  • C. Barbiturates
  • D. Heroin
  • E. LSD

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 227
If it is necessary to terminate an undercover investigation, one of the following actions should not be
done:

  • A. Prepare explanations for those who demand them
  • B. Reveal the agent's identity
  • C. Withdraw agent safely
  • D. Withdraw agent immediately
  • E. Salvage as much of the resultant data as possible

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 228
The continuity of business and industrial leadership and direction are essential parts of all industrial emergency plans. The following specific measures should be included in the development of a plan for continuity of leadership except:

  • A. Ensuring a functioning board of directors
  • B. Providing for a special stockholder meeting immediately after attack to provide for methods of operation
  • C. Ensuring record preservation
  • D. Establishing lines of succession for key officers and operating personnel
  • E. Establishing an alternate company headquarters

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:


NEW QUESTION # 229
Which of the following methods of duplication of records for emergency planning purposes is the least desirable?

  • A. None of the above
  • B. Photocopying
  • C. Carbon copies
  • D. Microfilming
  • E. Handwritten notations

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:


NEW QUESTION # 230
Which of the following is not correct regarding a security education program?

  • A. Structural aids to security are valueless without active support of all personnel.
  • B. None of the above.
  • C. All installation personnel must be made aware of the constant threat of breaches of security.
  • D. Many people are naive and trusting.
  • E. Security consciousness is an inherent state of mind.

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 231
Which of the following is not correct in regard to microwave transmissions?

  • A. Microwave signals penetrate fog and snow.
  • B. None of the above.
  • C. Microwave signals are not affected by ordinary man-made noise.
  • D. Microwave signals are transmitted in short radio waves.
  • E. A large number of microwave signals can be transmitted.
  • F. Microwave signals travel in curved lines.

Answer: F


NEW QUESTION # 232
Which of the following statements is not true in regard to an information security program?

  • A. A trust relationship must be established and maintained with employees.
  • B. The information security program is an attempt to make theft of sensitive information difficult, not
    necessarily to eliminate it.
  • C. The protection afforded against losses by either internal or external sources is, at best, limited.
  • D. The good will and compliance of employees is crucial for success.
  • E. A good information security program will provide total protection from industrial espionage.

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 233
A law that sets forth a maximum time period from the happening of an event for a legal action to be
properly filed in court is known as:

  • A. None of the above
  • B. The statute of limitations
  • C. The statute of frauds
  • D. The doctrine of estoppel
  • E. Stare decisis

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 234
Which of the following is not a requirement under the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 before a court may give permission for an electronic surveillance?

  • A. All of the above.
  • B. Initial approval must be granted by the attorney general of the United States or by a specially designated attorney general.
  • C. The crime must be any felony under federal law.
  • D. The place and location of the electronic surveillance must be stated.
  • E. The identity of the offender should be stated.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 235
A unit for measuring the amount of radiation exposure is called a(n):

  • A. Roentgen
  • B. Isotope
  • C. Gamma meter
  • D. Gamma ray

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 236
Which of the following is not a known advantage of the establishment of restricted areas?

  • A. They make it possible to have security compatible with operational requirements.
  • B. They provide an increase in security without slowdown in operation.
  • C. They allow for varying degrees of security as required.
  • D. They provide increased security through buffer zones.
  • E. They improve overall security.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 237
Which of the following does not apply to synthetic narcotics?

  • A. Synthetic narcotics are also covered by the Controlled Sub- stances Act.
  • B. Two of the most widely available synthetic narcotics are meperidine and methadone.
  • C. Synthetic narcotics are produced entirely within the laboratory.
  • D. Meperidine can be administered by injection or taken orally.
  • E. None of the above.
  • F. Large doses can result in convulsions.

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 238
Employees well-instructed on security awareness are better equipped to:

  • A. prepare for and respond to potential emergencies, protect assets, communicate effectively with law enforcement, investigate internal allegations, and reduce organizational liability.
  • B. protect assets, understand the relationship between security and operations, communicate effectively with law enforcement, and reduce organizational liability.
  • C. protect assets, understand the relationship between security and operations, know personal secunty responsibilities, comply with regulatory requirements and contractual obligations, and reduce organizational liability.
  • D. perform security risk and vulnerability assessments, prepare for and respond to potential emergencies, and reduce organizational liability.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Employees who are well-trained in security awareness are better equipped to integrate security practices into daily operations and fulfill regulatory and contractual obligations, ultimately reducing liability.
* Asset Protection:
* Employees understand the importance of safeguarding physical and informational assets.
* Integration with Operations:
* Awareness of how security supports overall business operations fosters better cooperation.
* Regulatory Compliance:
* Employees trained in compliance requirements help the organization meet legal and contractual obligations.
* Personal Security Responsibilities:
* Educating employees about their roles enhances individual accountability.
* A: While communication with law enforcement is beneficial, it does not encompass all responsibilities.
* C: Risk assessments are specialized tasks typically performed by trained professionals.
* D: Investigating internal allegations is not a standard security awareness training component.
Key Benefits of Security Awareness Training:Why Other Options Are Incorrect:ASIS CPP References:
* Domain 3: Security OperationsEmphasizes the importance of security awareness in reducing organizational liability.


NEW QUESTION # 239
Which of the following executive protection goals is the top priority?

  • A. Permitting the executive to retreat into a safe haven of sufficient strength and survivability
  • B. Increasing the amount of time required to gain physical access to executives
  • C. Enabling executives to flee to safety
  • D. Avoiding dangerous conditions or people

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 240
The agreement prohibiting an employee from disclosing confidential information for a stated period of time after accepting employment with a defined competitor is called a:

  • A. noncompetitive covenant.
  • B. nondisclosure agreement.
  • C. competitive agreement.
  • D. disclosure agreement.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A noncompetitive covenant is an agreement prohibiting an employee from disclosing confidential information or working for competitors for a specified period after leaving their current employment.
* Confidentiality Protection:
* Safeguards proprietary and sensitive information from being shared with competitors.
* Employment Restrictions:
* Limits former employees from joining or assisting competitors in a way that could harm the original employer.
* Legal Enforceability:
* Must comply with local laws to be enforceable, as some jurisdictions limit the scope and duration of these agreements.
* A: Competitive agreement is not a recognized legal term in this context.
* C: Nondisclosure agreements restrict information sharing but do not address employment with competitors.
* D: Disclosure agreements pertain to sharing, not restricting, information.
Key Features of Noncompetitive Covenants:Why Other Options Are Incorrect:ASIS CPP References:
* Domain 7: Legal AspectsExplains employment contracts, including noncompetitive covenants and confidentiality agreements.


NEW QUESTION # 241
In investigating homicide and suicide, the best source of information would probably be the:

  • A. Health office
  • B. Federal Bureau of Investigation
  • C. Sheriff's office
  • D. County coroner's office
  • E. State attorney general's office

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 242
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